In Reply to: Re: Tell me one thing though posted by SY (reposted) on October 26, 2008 at 12:57:17:
For he did also speak figuratively, use allegories, parables and metaphors, and play with symbolism, did he not?
Are there not also inconsistencies and free interpretation in translations from hebrew and greek when it comes to singular or plural usage of words?
The church seems to make it the default, but at the time of Jesus, polygamy although rare, was acceptable, so if he did actually have such a specific stance on monogamy, why wasn't there a mention of anyone objecting to it or even raising a question about it?