After reading the comment by Byron:
"I am praying for you and I get answers to my prayers, so I can't be the great sinner, that I may appear to some, to be."
Putting aside the nasty context it was in, I wondered about the idea of God hearing the prayer of the righteous. I remembered there were some verses about this and I found these using this site's KJV Search in the Search section:
Psa. 143:1 Hear my prayer, O LORD, give ear to my supplications: in thy faithfulness answer me, and in thy righteousness.
Pro. 15:29 The LORD is far from the wicked: but he heareth the prayer of the righteous.
Ja. 5:16 Confess your faults one to another, and pray one for another, that ye may be healed. The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much.
1Pet. 3:12 For the eyes of the Lord are over the righteous, and his ears are open unto their prayers: but the face of the Lord is against them that do evil.
This made me wonder about several things, in light of the way Berg taught us to believe we could practically get God to do a song and dance for us if we commanded Him:
How righteous do you have to be before God hears your prayers?
One of those verses was about God's righteousness, so how much of our righteousness is really valid if we are all sinners? How do you measure that righteousness? Isn't there such a thing as a sinner who is righteous?
What about a righteousman praying amiss?
What if 2 people pray for opposing things, and one is more righteous, and both options are acceptable in the scheme of things?
Thoughts anybody?
Am I going crazy?