In Reply to: Re: rasón/ratsón and eudokía posted by Sam AJemian on July 31, 2003 at 07:41:33:
Hi Sam.
Why do you want to use “man” Sam?
The word for “Man“ (male) is ”aner“. As in Lu 1:27 - ”To a Virgin espoused to a man (aner - male) who's name was Joseph.“
The word used here is from “anthropos” which is the word Young's concordance translates as “belongs to humanity” . ie. “in Him was life and the life was the life of “men“ (anthropon).That includes me, though our masculinized English does not make that clear.
It is the word from which science derives “anthropoid” which means human species.
KJ uses the masculine terms for words that in the original Greek are not masculine terms, such as “bretheren”, “brothers“, “men” “man“ etc. We women are to just assume it refers to us too? As long as we can look up the word in the Greek and verify it is one of the ones that can be used without gender.
What's the beef? Well, You guys always know it's about you and we gals have to wonder or research. Isn't that what this threads about anyway, finding to whom is God's pleasure/ good will. Well it's to “antropon” (I'm one of those).
I've heard it said that being ignored is one of the greatest insults. The scripture does not ignore the ladies. Paul didn't ignore the ladies. Jesus didn't ignore the ladies. The Greek doesn't either. How about "Peace on earth and good will to human kind".
Just an after thought. Woodie