In Reply to: Re: bamboozled clarification posted by Perry on July 22, 2005 at 22:32:47:
Hi, Perry!
Regarding your Latin quote--at the point one believes he/she has perceived freedom, of what does that freedom consist?
Surely not just a "witch-word'" against Bible-based and historically orthodox (id est: NOT the TFI version/perversion) beliefs of the Christianity embraced, experienctially and historically, now by literally billions.
At that point, what are you saying the "arriver" at that truth is free for?
Surely not to claim that they are absolutely sure, experientially, that "there are absolutely no absolutes" (example gratis: especially Bible-based Christianity).
It seems to me that Berg's singular goal was to establish an antinomian "freedom" to pursue power, manipulation and sexual perversion. Why would not your unqualified "freedom" then apply to him?
Do you have a particularmoralcompass in mind, and if so; why?
Just some logical/philosophical considerations.
'Later.
Sincerely,
OT2 (OldtimerToo)