Posted by on April 07, 2010 at 14:54:45
In Reply to: Re: Oops--Hindu Flood theology DOES exist posted by Farmer on April 06, 2010 at 18:36:23:
Farmer:
See:
True Sanskrit only predates Christ by a little over 300 years. Earlier Iranian pre-sanskrit influences exist, yes, but it would still have to be post-Flood as well as post-Tower of Babel; however that dates out ultimately.
Noah and his sons were told to fill the earth, and the Tower was mankind's eventual refusal to do so--God's judjement was the confusion of tongues, Pre-Sanskrit included, I must conclude.
Babylonian astrology still predates Hindu astrology, and is far less complex, also. Babylonian astrology involved the worship of Remphan (), Molech (), and Ashtaroth (). Nasty demons--live children were sacrificed to Molech. Live funeral Pyre widows were sacrificed by Hindus, and on cult even (still) eats burnt human remains at the Ganges.
Gifts of the Holy Spirit, THIS side of our resurrected bodies in the Milennium, are called "powers of the world to come" in Hebrews--we'll be sinless then, and TOTALLY yielded and obedient and perfectly attuned to Him.
Jesus always was, is, and always will be God. He was being sarcastic when He quoted the OT to the Pharisees, where it "called 'ELOHIM' ('rulers or mighty ones', I believe) those to whom the Scripture came" (also ALWAYS by the ministry of the Holy Spirit. Another Scripture says that Israel would be "as god" to the surrounding heathen nations in the Millennium.
I'm a little confused by you last paragraph:
"However the "neat" thing in Hinduism for endtime-pupose (I figure, similar new age etc.) is this deification-trip they are on, human beings...politicians...husband...actors and whatnot....they call them gods...even though OT in the psalms is basically saying the same....but I rather take that as a promise for the time after the first resurrection."
Explain?
Regards,
OT2