Posted by Skep on July 08, 2011 at 01:04:29
Dear Farmer, this is a little disturbing to me. I wonder if there is some fundamental lack in my logic here. You say:
[It] is not what you or I or OT2 says, interprets etc...but what the Word of God says
My problem is don't we read the Word of God? Don't we perceive the Word of God?
If so, don't we interpret it?
By having contact with the Word of God, aren't we interpreting it? How else do we interact with it? Even more, understand it?
Interpretation takes place as a result of experiencing (reading it, receiving it, sensing it, etc.) The Word of God alone is there, it exists, but in order for people to live it, to believe it, to follow it, understanding is a personal thing, right?
Care to explain?